.enkidu said:No, it's quite literal. All four gospels (eg. Luke 22:14-20) recount the last Passover supper he had with his apostles the night before he was crucified. He said, "I have eagerly desired to eat this Passover with you before I suffer. . . Then he took the bread, said the blessing, broke it, and gave it to them, saying, "This is my body, which will be given for you; do this in memory of me." And likewise the cup after they had eaten, saying, "This cup is the new covenant in my blood, which will be shed for you."
You realize that to "drink blood" was to make oneself unclean according to Torah............remember Jesus was a Torah observant Jew, if He wasn't He would have been a false Messiah..........the early church was entirely Torah observant Jews until Acts 10.........Paul even says in Acts 23 he "is" a Pharisee (not was) which implies observance to Torah.